Chelsea will bring in Attila Szalai in January, Marco Rossi claims calciomercato. According to the national coach of Hungary, who is responsible for Szalai in that capacity, the transfer of the 23-year-old center defender from Fenerbahçe is ‘a foregone conclusion’.
Szalai is known as one of the greatest talents in his position. The 23-time Hungarian international has been associated with Chelsea, Sevilla and Atlético Madrid for weeks. According to Rossi, Chelsea have already won the battle for the mandekker. Various international media expect that around 23 million euros will have to be paid to Fenerbahçe to acquire Szalai in January.
Rossi was called by the Italian calciomercato asked which Hungarian national team player would add to Serie A. “Attila Szalai certainly could, but I think he will go to Chelsea,” said the Hungary national coach. “Obviously he is also followed by clubs from Spain, but apparently his move to Chelsea is a foregone conclusion. But he could also do great in Italian football.”
Szalai was discovered by Fenerbahçe in the Cypriot league. The Turkish top club paid only two million euros in January this year to remove the Hungarian from Apollon and will therefore book a nice transfer profit. Szalai now has 43 matches for Fenerbahçe to his name, in which he produced 3 goals and 2 assists. The rearguard player is the captain of the Hungarian national team and was therefore in all three European Championship matches in his country last summer.
It is not illogical that Chelsea are looking for a new centre-back. The Londoners will almost certainly lose Antonio Rüdiger, because negotiations with the German mandekker about contract extension have been discontinued. Rüdiger goes according to Goal make a transfer-free move to Real Madrid. The contracts of Andreas Christensen and César Azpilicueta also expire at Chelsea. It is not yet clear whether the defenders will sign.
Related
More sports news